Q 1: Which of the following is a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements for effective process improvement and guides process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization? 

Q 1: Which of the following is a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements for effective process improvement and guides process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization?

Capability Maturity Model Integration

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Service Portfolio

Six Sigma

COBIT

Q 2: Which of the following describe the basic concept of Integrity in Security Management?

The accessibility to the data

The protection of the data

The capacity to verify the correctness of the data

The correctness of the data

Q 3: Which of the following ITIL processes is used to provide change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors?

Availability management

Problem Management

Q 4: The Business has submitted requirements for a new ERP system. Which authority is responsible for documenting the Service Level Requirements (SLRs) with the Business delegate?

Service Owner

Project Management

Service Level Manager

Service Level Management

Q 5: Where are the details of a workaround documented?

Problem Record

Operational Level Agreement

Service Level Agreement

Known Error

Q 6: Which of the following processes are involved under the COBIT framework?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Correcting all risk issues

Conducting IT risk assessments

Managing the IT workforce

Developing a strategic plan

Q 7: Which of the following are the advantages of Deming Cycle?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

It is a problem solving process.

It is used during the design phase.

It provides continuous improvement.

It is used for quality control

Q 8: Which of the following roles in Service Design defines a blueprint for the future development of the technological landscape?

The Supplier Manager

The Application Analysts and Architects

The IT Architect

Technical Analysts/Architects

Q 9: Which of the following are the benefits of the ISO/IEC 20000-1 standard?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

It can be used for a service provider to improve the design, transition, delivery, and improvement of services by proper implementation and operation of the service management system (SMS).

It is used to document a policy manual and determine and maintain the necessary infrastructure in order to ensure quality and customer property protection requirements.

It can be used for a service provider to monitor, measure, and review the service management processes and services.

It can be used for an organization that takes services of service providers and needs assurance that its service requirements will be fulfilled

Q 10: The objective of Capacity Management is to ensure that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient capacity so that the current and the future needs of the customer’s business is fulfilled. Which of the following are the sub-processes of the Capacity Management?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Resource Capacity Management

Service Capacity Management

Business Capacity Management

Internal Capacity Management

Q 11: Which of the following sub-processes of Service Portfolio Management is used to define the overall goals that the service provider should pursue in its development?

Strategic Planning

Service Portfolio Update

Service Strategy Definition

Strategic Service Assessment

Q 12: Which of the following processes is used to involve Identity and Rights as the two major concepts?

Access Management

Event Management

Release Management

IT Facilities Management

Q 13: Which of the following offer integration opportunities linking with the CMS, system, application management tools, service dashboard, and reporting tools?

IT service management systems

Six Sigma systems

CMMI systems

Business Process Management systems

Q 14: What is the correct sequence of steps for the CSI approach?

1. Did we get there?

2. How do we keep the momentum going?

3. How do we get there?

4. Where do we want to be?

5. What is the vision?

6. Where are we now?

4, 5, 3, 6, 1, 2

4, 5, 6, 3, 2, 1

5, 4, 6, 3, 1, 2

5, 6, 4, 3, 1, 2

Q 15: Which of these are valid service provider types according to ITIL?

1. Internal

2. Shared services

3. Fully outsourced

1 and 2

2 and 3

1, 2, and 3

1 and 3

Q 16: The objective of Capacity Management is to ensure that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient capacity so that the current and the future needs of the customer’s business is fulfilled. Which of the following are the sub-processes of the Capacity Management?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Service Capacity Management

Business Capacity Management

Internal Capacity Management

Resource Capacity Management

Q 17: What is the name specified to the type of charging where no money is exchanged inter-departmentally mainly involving the IT Department & the customer?

Chargeback

Full Charging

Notional Charging

No Charging

Q 18: In which of the following is defining the processes required to operate a new service?

Service Design: Design the processes

Service Operation: IT Operations Management

Service Strategy: Develop the offerings

Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment

Q 19: Which of the following ITIL processes is responsible for determining the hardware requirements in order to support an application?

Capacity Management

Configuration Management

Change Management

Software Asset Management

Q 20: Where are the details of a workaround documented?

Known Error

Service Level Agreement

Operational Level Agreement

Problem Record

Q 21: At which phase of the release and deployment process would you expect to receive feedback on the success or failure of the release?

Release and deployment planning

Deployment

Review and close

Release build and test

Q 22: Which services are displayed in the service catalog?

Operational IT services

Obsolete IT services

Business services

Retired services

Q 23: Availability Management deals with the day-to-day availability of services. Which of the following are the activities of Availability Management?

It determines the reason of availability failures.

It analyzes business requirements for availability of business systems.

It meets SLAs by ensuring service availability.

It coordinates the changes.

Q 24: In which of the following approaches of Service Desk does the location of Service Desk is immaterial?

Local Service Desk

Centralized Service Desk

Apparent Service Desk

Virtual Service Desk

Q 25: Metrics define what is to be measured and reported to help manage a process or service. Which of the following are the types of metrics? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

Technology

Service

Process

Definitive Media Library

Q 26: The Service Level Management (SLM) process defines, agrees, records, and manages levels of service. Which of the following are the objectives of the Service Level Management process?

It describes the services offered to the customer in a terminology that the customers can easily understand.

It aligns IT strategy according to the business needs.

It improves IT Service Delivery in a controlled way.

It plans the successful roll-out of software and associated hardware.

Q 27: Which of the following processes is accountable for monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops beneath adequate limits?

Service asset and configuration management

Event management

Service request management

Service level management

Q 28: Which of the following is identified as a metric type by continual service improvement?

Business metrics

Process metrics

Relationship metrics

Infrastructure metrics

Q 29: Which of the following are the costs of implementing Release Management?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Cost related to software tools and used hardware

Storage cost for the purpose of Definitive Software Library (DSL) or Definitive Hardware Store (DHS), building, testing, and distribution environments

Personnel cost

Cost of operation activities, for updating the Service Level Agreements, the Service Quality Plan, and the service catalogue

Q 30: Which of the following roles in Service Design is responsible for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of an organization’s assets, information, data, and IT services?

The IT Service Continuity Manager

The IT Security Manager

The Compliance Manager

The Availability Manager

Q 31: Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL?

The costs of the IT Services can be controlled more efficiently

The quality of the IT Services can be controlled more efficiently

It is possible to charge for IT Services

The users can influence the IT organization providing the IT Services

Q 32: Which of the following is the central repository of the IT organization’s data, information, and knowledge?

Compliance Management

Service Knowledge Management System

Knowledge Management

Supplier and Contract Database

Q 33: Availability Management deals with the day-to-day availability of services. Which of the following takes over when a ‘disaster’ situation occurs?

Service Reporting

Service Level Management

Capacity Management

Service Continuity Management

Q 34: Financial Management for IT Services defines which of the following major cost types?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Accommodation

People

Customer service

CRM

Hardware

Software

Q 35: Which of the following activities in the Problem Management process is responsible for generating Requests for Change (RFCs)?

Problem Control Process

Business Transaction Management

Error Control

Problem Management Process

Q 36: Who is responsible for signing off on project closure documents?

sponsor

End user

Project manager

Project team members

Q 37: Which of the following features are identified by a Business Impact Analysis?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

It identifies necessary resources that are required to allow continuity of critical business processes.

It identifies possible escalations caused due to any damage or loss.

It identifies the critical business processes and essential business functions.

It identifies a policy that exists on the financial management of services.

Q 38: Which of the following is the objective for the planning and implementation of new or changed services?

It is used to define and control service and infrastructure components and maintain accurate configuration information.

It is used to produce agreed, timely, reliable, and accurate reports for the purpose of decision making and effective communication.

It ensures that new services and changes to the services will be delivered and managed at the agreed cost and service quality.

It ensures that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient capacity so that the current and the future needs of the customer get fulfilled.

Q 39: Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?

Incident management

Service portfolio management

Service asset and configuration management

Service level management

Q 40: Which of the following is used to continually improve the process performance by taking actions?

Check

Do

Plan

Act

Q 41: Which of the following are the outputs for Change Management?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Triggers for Configuration Management and Release Management

Updated change planning

CMDB information

Change Management reports

Q 42: Which of the following defines customer perceptions and business outcomes?

Customer Relationship Management

Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)

Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

Service Value

Q 43: What are the two aspects of operations management?

Resource management and capability management

Facilities management and operations control

Resource management and operations control

Facilities management and infrastructure management

Q 44: The goal of Change Management is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient handling of all changes. Which of the following are Change Management terminologies?

Change

Service Request Management

Request for Change

Forward Schedule of Changes

Q 45: Which one of these statements about the service portfolio is correct?

The service portfolio is used to provide information on costs, benefits, and issues for input into a business case.

The service portfolio is used to manage improvements to all IT services.

The service portfolio is a database of the infrastructure used for managing service assets.

The service portfolio is used to manage all changes to IT services.

Q 46: The objective of Configuration Management is to define and control the service and infrastructure components, and to maintain accurate configuration information. Which of the following are the activities of Configuration Management?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

Management & Planning

Control

Performing a Trend Analysis

Status Accounting

Q 47: The primary aim of Incident Management is to ensure a quick recovery of the system. It supervises and directs the internal or external resources. Which of the following are the activities of Incident Management?

It provides the proactive prevention of problems.

It behaves as an interface towards other technicians, customer technical staff, and other groups within the organization.

It keeps track and record of the time lines.

It assures that the other activities do not take away the focus on the incident resolution.

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